Friday, December 19, 2014

Scott Equipment Organization is investigating various combinations of short- and long-term debt

Scott Equipment Organization is investigating various combinations of short- and long-term debt in financing assets. Assume the organization has decided to employ $10 million in current assets and $15 million in fixed assets in its operations next year, and EBIT for next year is $8 million. The organization's income tax rate is 40%. Stockholders' equity will be used to finance $15 million of assets, with the remainder financed by short- and long-term debt. The organization is considering implementing one of the policies below.
Current Assets: $10 million
Fixed Assets: $15 million
Total Assets : $25 million
Stockholders' Equity: $15 million
Total Amount of Assets to be financed by debt: $10 million
Tax Rate: 40%
Total EBIT: $8 million
Aggressive Strategy
Short Term Debt: $8 million, 6% interest rate
Long Term Debt: $2 million, 8% interest rate
Moderate Strategy
Short Term Debt: $5 million, 5.5% interest rate
Long Term Debt: $5 million,7.5% interest rate
Conservative Strategy
Short Term Debt: $3 million, 5.25% interest rate
Long Term Debt: $7 million, 7.25% interest rate
Determine the following for each policy:
Net Income
Expected rate of return on stockholders' equity (Net Income/Equity)
Net working capital position (Current Assets - Current Liabilities)
Current ratio (Current Assets/Current Liabilities)
Would you rate them low, medium, or high with respect to profitability?
Would you rate them low, medium, or high with respect to risk?
What is your recommendation to management? Why?

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(TCO 1) Opportunity cost is best defined as (Points : 4)

(TCO 1) Opportunity cost is best defined as (Points : 4)
marginal cost minus marginal benefit.
the time spent on an economic activity.
the value of the best forgone alternative.
the money cost of an economic decision.


Question 2.2. (TCO1) Which of the following is considered to be an entrepreneur? (Points : 4)
Self-employed person
MBA graduate hired by a firm to be its CEO
Production-line worker
Customer of a firm


Question 3.3. (TCO1) A point outside the production possibilities curve is (Points : 4)
attainable, but there is not full employment.
attainable, but there is not optimal allocation.
unattainable because the economy is inefficient.
unattainable because of limited resources.


Question 4.4. (TCO1) A basic characteristic of a command system is that (Points : 4)
wages paid to labor are higher.
government owns most economic resources.
free markets are never permitted in a command economy.
government planners play a limited role in deciding what goods will be produced.


Question 5.5. (TCO 2) Which is consistent with the law of demand? (Points : 4)
A decrease in the price of tacos causes no change in the quantity of tacos demanded.
An increase in the price of pizza causes an increase in the quantity of pizza demanded.
An increase in the price of hamburgers causes a decrease in the quantity of hamburgers demanded.
A decrease in the price of turkey sandwiches causes a decrease in the quantity of turkey sandwiches demanded.


Question 6.6. (TCO 2) What combination of changes would most likely decrease the equilibrium price? (Points : 4)
When supply decreases and demand increases
When demand increases and supply increases
When demand decreases and supply decreases
When supply increases and demand decreases


Question 7.7. (TCO 2) Chuck Grim has a price elasticity of demand for beer of 1.2. Suppose that the price of beer is increased by 10 percent. What will happen to the total amount Chuck spends on beer? (Points : 4)
It will not change.
It will decrease.
It will increase.
It is impossible to tell.


Question 8.8. (TCO 2) Which of the following factors will make the demand for a product relatively elastic? (Points : 4)
There are few substitutes.
The time interval considered is long.
The good is considered a necessity.
Purchases of the good require a small portion of consumers' budgets.


Question 9.9. (TCO 2) Which is true for a purely competitive firm in short-run equilibrium? (Points : 4)
The firm is making only normal profits.
The firm's marginal cost is greater than its marginal revenue.
The firm's marginal revenue is equal to its marginal cost.
A decrease in output would lead to a rise in profits.


Question 10.10. (TCO 2) Which would definitely not be an example of price discrimination? (Points : 4)
A theater charges children less than adults for a movie.
Universities charge higher tuition for out-of-state residents.
A doctor charges for services according to the income of patients.
An electric power company charges less for electricity used during off-peak hours when production costs are lower.


Question 11.11. (TCO 3) A major reason that firms form a cartel is to (Points : 4)
reduce the elasticity of demand for the product.
enlarge the market share for each producer.
minimize the costs of production.
maximize joint profits.


Question 12.12. (TCO 3) In the short run, output (Points : 4)
is absolutely fixed.
can vary as the result of using a fixed amount of plant and equipment more or less intensively.
may be altered by varying the size of plant and equipment which now exist in the industry.
can vary as the result of changing the size of existing plants and by new firms entering or leaving the industry.


Question 13.13. (TCO 4) Which phase of the business cycle would be most closely associated with an economic contraction? (Points : 4)
Peak
Recession
Trough
Recovery


Question 14.14. (TCO 4) In calculating the unemployment rate, part-time workers are (Points : 4)
counted as unemployed because they are not working full-time.
counted as employed because they are receiving payment for work.
used to determine the size of the labor force, but not the unemployment rate.
treated the same as "discouraged" workers who are not actively seeking employment.


Question 15.15. (TCO 4) To avoid multiple counting in national income accounts (Points : 4)
only final goods and services should be counted.
intermediate goods and services should be counted.
both final and intermediate goods and services should be counted.
primary, intermediate, and final goods an


(TCO 5) An increase in expected future income will (Points : 4)
increase aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
decrease aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
increase aggregate supply.
increase aggregate demand.


Question 2.2. (TCO 5) The upward slope of the short-run aggregate supply curve is based on the assumption that (Points : 4)
wages and other resource prices do not respond to price level changes.
wages and other resource prices do respond to price level changes.
prices of output do not respond to price level changes.
prices of inputs are flexible while prices of outputs are fixed.


Question 3.3. (TCO 5) If the price of crude oil decreases, then this event would most likely (Points : 4)
decrease aggregate supply in the U.S.
increase aggregate supply in the U.S.
increase aggregate demand in the U.S.
decrease aggregate demand in the U.S.


Question 4.4. (TCO 5) Deflation refers to a situation where (Points : 4)
price level falls.
price level rises.
the rate of inflation falls.
the rate of inflation rises.


Question 5.5. (TCO 6) Dissaving occurs when (Points : 4)
income is greater than saving.
income is less than consumption.
saving is greater than consumption.
saving is greater than the interest rate.


Question 6.6. (TCO 7) The M1 money supply is composed of (Points : 4)
all coins and paper money held by the general public and the banks.
bank deposits of households and business firms.
bank deposits and mutual funds.
checkable deposits and currency in circulation.


Question 7.7. (TCO 7) The basic requirement of money is that it be (Points : 4)
backed by precious metals--gold or silver.
authorized as legal tender by the central government.
generally accepted as a medium of exchange.
some form of debt or credit.


Question 8.8. (TCO 7) The Federal Reserve System consists of which of the following? (Points : 4)
Federal Open Market Committee and Office of Thrift Supervision
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and Controller of the Currency
U.S. Treasury Department and Bureau of Engraving and Printing
Board of Governors and the 12 Federal Reserve Banks


Question 9.9. (TCO 7) Which group is responsible for the policy of changing the money supply? (Points : 4)
Federal Open Market Committee
Office of Management and Budget
Thrift Advisory Council
Federal Advisory Council


Question 10.10. (TCO 7) The Federal funds rate is the rate that banks pay for loans from (Points : 4)
the Fed.
the U.S. Treasury.
other banks.
large corporations.


Question 11.11. (TCO 7) The difference between Fed behavior during the Bank Panics of 1930-1933 and the Financial Crisis of 2007-2008 is that the Fed (Points : 4)
was very active during the former crisis, while it was basically passive during the latter crisis.
stood idly by during the former crisis, but took dramatic actions during the latter crisis.
was not yet in existence during the 1930s.
was a much bigger institution in the 1930s than it is today.


Question 12.12. (TCO 7) Which one of the following is a tool of monetary policy for altering the reserves of commercial banks? (Points : 4)
Issuing currency
Check collection
Open-market operations
Acting as the fiscal agent for the federal government


Question 13.13. (TCO 7) The Federal Reserve could reduce the money supply by (Points : 4)
selling government bonds in the open market.
buying government bonds in the open market.
operating the term auction facility.
reducing the discount rate.


Question 14.14. (TCO 8) Which nation has greatly increased its role in international trade in recent years? (Points : 4)
Japan
Iran
Peru
China


Question 15.15. (TCO 8) In a two-nation world, comparative advantage means that one nation can produce (Points : 4)
a product with fewer inputs than the other nation.
a product at lower average cost than the other nation.
a product at a lower domestic opportunity cost than the other nation.
more of a product than the other nation.


Question 16.16. (TCO 8) If a nation imposes a tariff on an imported product, then the nation will experience a(n) (Points : 4)
decrease in total supply and an increase in the price of the product.
decrease in demand and a decrease in the price of the product.
decrease in supply of, and an increase in demand for, the product.
increase in supply of, and a decrease in demand for, the product.


Question 17.17. (TCO 8) Tariffs and quotas are costly to consumers because (Points : 4)
the price of the imported good falls.
the supply of the imported good increases.
import competition increases for domestic go
              consumers shift purchases to domestically-produced goods.


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After all your hard work and receiving your BNCM degree

WEEK5
Congratulations! After all your hard work and receiving your BNCM degree, you were able to land your dream network engineering job in your company’s network operations center (NOC).
It’s your third week on the job and your manager comes to you to help out with one of their ongoing challenges – having accurate data to manage all the diverse corporate networks and links. She knows that the company needs to get better with remote monitoring and has heard about RMON and RMON probes. Although she has a basic understanding, she is now wondering if these could be the answer.
She knows that you’ve had much experience in researching, analyzing and reporting on new technology during your academic career, and this is exactly what she needs now – for real. She has asked you to research and report on what RMON and RMON probes are and how they are utilized in enterprise network management systems and how they would benefit the company.
She needs your report to be thorough but not overwhelming and has decided that five to seven pages are ideal. She is scheduled to brief the Executive committee the middle of next week and has given you one week to deliver your report. It’s your time to shine!



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Suppose that the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) administers the price floor for cheese

Suppose that the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) administers the price floor for cheese, set at $0.17 per pound of cheese. (In real life the actual price floor was officially set at $16.10 per hundredweight of cheese. One hundredweight is 100 pounds.) At that price, according to data from the USDA, the quantity of cheese produced in 2009 by U.S. producers was 212.5 billion pounds, and the quantity demanded was 211 billion pounds. To support the price of cheese at the price floor, the USDA had to buy up 1.5 billion pounds of cheese. The accompanying diagram shows supply and demand curves illustrating the market for cheese.
a. In the absence of a price floor, the maximum price that a few of the consumers are willing to pay is $0.20 for a pound of cheese whereas the market equilibrium price is $0.13 per pound. The graph also shows that the minimum price at which a few of the producers are willing to sell is $0.06 per pound. In the absence of a price floor, how much consumer surplus is created?
b. How much producer surplus?
c. What is the total surplus?
d. The maximum price that a few of the consumers are willing to pay is $0.20 per pound of cheese, and the price floor is set at $0.17 per pound. With the price floor at $0.17 per pound of cheese, consumers buy 211 billion pounds of cheese. How much consumer surplus is created now?
e. The minimum price at which a few of the producers are willing to sell a pound of cheese is $0.06, and the price floor is set at $0.17 per pound. With the price floor at $0.17 per pound of cheese, producers sell 212.5 billion pounds of cheese (some to consumers and some to the USDA). How much producer surplus is created now?
f. The surplus cheese USDA buys is the difference between the quantity of cheese producers sell (212.5 billions of pounds of cheese) and the quantity of cheese consumers are willing to buy at the price floor (211 billions of pounds of cheese). How much money does the USDA spend on buying up surplus cheese?
g. Taxes must be collected to pay for the purchases of surplus cheese by the USDA. As a result, total surplus (producer plus consumer) is reduced by the amount the USDA spent on buying surplus cheese. Using your answers for parts d, e, and f, what is the total surplus when there is a price floor?
h. How does this compare to the total surplus without a price floor from part c?

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Briarcrest Condiments is a spice-making firm.

Briarcrest Condiments is a spice-making firm. Recently, it developed a new process for producing spices. The process requires new machinery that would cost $1,968,450. have a life of five years, and would produce the cash flows shown in the following table.
Year Cash Flow
1 $512,496
2 -242,637
3 814,558
4 887,225
5 712,642
What is the NPV if the discount rate is 15.9 percent? (Enter negative amounts using negative sign e.g. -45.25. Round answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25.)
NPV is $
2. Archer Daniels Midland Company is considering buying a new farm that it plans to operate for 10 years. The farm will require an initial investment of $12.00 million. This investment will consist of $2.00 million for land and $10.00 million for trucks and other equipment. The land, all trucks, and all other equipment is expected to be sold at the end of 10 years at a price of $5.00 million, $2.00 million above book value. The farm is expected to produce revenue of $2.00 million each year, and annual cash flow from operations equals $1.80 million. The marginal tax rate is 35 percent, and the appropriate discount rate is 10 percent. Calculate the NPV of this investment. (Round intermediate calculations and final answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25.)
NPV $
The project should be .
3. Bell Mountain Vineyards is considering updating its current manual accounting system with a high-end electronic system. While the new accounting system would save the company money, the cost of the system continues to decline. The Bell Mountain’s opportunity cost of capital is 10 percent, and the costs and values of investments made at different times in the future are as follows:
Year Cost Value of Future Savings
(at time of purchase)
0 $5,000 $7,000
1 4,500 7,000
2 4,000 7,000
3 3,600 7,000
4 3,300 7,000
5 3,100 7,000
Calculate the NPV of each choice. (Round answers to the nearest whole dollar, e.g. 5,275.)
The NPV of each choice is:
NPV0 = $
NPV1 = $
NPV2 = $
NPV3 = $
NPV4 = $
NPV5 = $
Suggest when should Bell Mountain buy the new accounting system?
Bell Mountain should purchase the system in .
4.Chip’s Home Brew Whiskey management forecasts that if the firm sells each bottle of Snake-Bite for $20, then the demand for the product will be 15,000 bottles per year, whereas sales will be 90 percent as high if the price is raised 10 percent. Chip’s variable cost per bottle is $10, and the total fixed cash cost for the year is $100,000. Depreciation and amortization charges are $20,000, and the firm has a 30 percent marginal tax rate. Management anticipates an increased working capital need of $3,000 for the year. What will be the effect of the price increase on the firm’s FCF for the year? (Round answers to nearest whole dollar, e.g. 5,275.)
At $20 per bottle the Chip’s FCF is $ and at the new price Chip’s FCF is $.
5. Capital Co. has a capital structure, based on current market values, that consists of 50 percent debt, 10 percent preferred stock, and 40 percent common stock. If the returns required by investors are 8 percent, 10 percent, and 15 percent for the debt, preferred stock, and common stock, respectively, what is Capital’s after-tax WACC? Assume that the firm’s marginal tax rate is 40 percent. (Round intermediate calculations to 4 decimal places, e.g. 1.2514 and final answer to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25%.)
After tax WACC = %


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Friday, August 29, 2014

targets developing leadership for the organization and frequently highly individualized in nature.

Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ targets developing leadership for the organization and frequently highly individualized in nature.


A. Executive development


B. Leader development


C. Leadership development


D. Supervisory and managerial development

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Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ involves a a relatively permanent increase or change in behavior, knowledge, or skill that comes about because of some experience.


A. Education


B. Development


C. Learning


D. Training

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Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ programs focus on self-awareness and understanding of strengths and weakness as well as getting in touch with personal values.


A. Basic knowledge


B. Personal growth


C. Skill development


D. Creativity

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Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
A willingness to learn requires both:


A. motivation and readiness


B. motivation and education


C. readiness and education


D. readiness and development

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Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Whechien was recently hired as a floor manager of a local home garden center. During his first month as manager, he participated in 80 hours of orientation training to become familiar with the policies and procedures of the organization. Which element of the core of learning best represents this example?


A. willingness to learn


B. ability to learn


C. effective informal support


D. sufficient development experiences

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Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
If the culture values __________, then leader development should focus opportunities on all employees.


A. egalitarianiasm


B. high power distance


C. action-orienttion


D. high communication context

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Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ refers to leader development programs that focus on information about content of leadership and fundamental concepts such as communication, feedback and contingent rewards.


A. Basic knowledge


B. Personal growth


C. Skill development


D. Creativity

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Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ focuses on the application of knowledge which included topics such as planning, goal setting, and monitoring.


A. Basic knowledge


B. Personal growth


C. Skill development


D. Creativity

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Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
Because the United States has __________, it is appropriate to create leader development programs with a high degree of exposure to new and challenging situations.


A. tolerance for ambiguity


B. action-orientation


C. high communication context


D. low power distance

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Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Cultures that value __________, can focus the content of leader development and training on practical matters and hands-on training.


A. action-orientation


B. high communication context


C. tolerance for ambiguity


D. high power distance

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Question 11 of 20
5.0 Points
Coaching programs are most often used in:


A. executive development programs.


B. self-development programs.


C. supervisor training programs.


D. leader development programs.

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Question 12 of 20
5.0 Points
Which personality trait is most likely related to one’s ability to seek and accept feedback?


A. external locus of control


B. openness to experience


C. emotional stablility


D. high macs

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Question 13 of 20
5.0 Points
Self-awareness is a limited method for leader development because it only provides leaders with:


A. rich developmental experience.


B. individual awareness.


C. opportunity for practice.


D. support from the organization.

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Question 14 of 20
5.0 Points
When using the __________ criteria for leader training, participants must be alerted to the need for change and specific areas they should address so that they are ready to change.


A. assessment


B. individual awareness


C. opportunity for practice


D. challenging experience

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Question 15 of 20
5.0 Points
Which criteria for effective development relate to the culture of the organization?


A. fit and integration


B. assessment


C. opportunity for practice


D. feedback

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Question 16 of 20
5.0 Points
Leader development programs that provide parallel learning environments and address different learning styles offer:


A. appropriate assessment and follow-up.


B. clearly stated objectives.


C. integrated assessment.


D. a combination of tools and methods.

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Question 17 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ refers to the process of personal reflection and getting feedback from others.


A. Values clarification


B. Assessment


C. Double-loop learning


D. Learning

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Question 18 of 20
5.0 Points
The only potential weakness for real experience in leader development criteria is __________, which can be easily built in through formal programs or use of existing organizational performance tools.


A. individual awareness


B. feedback on new learning


C. opportunity for practice


D. assessment

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Question 19 of 20
5.0 Points
The primary difference in the methods often used for coaching and mentoring programs is that mentoring usually does not include:


A. assessment.


B. opportunity for practice.


C. support from the organization.


D. individual awareness.

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Question 20 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ is an ongoing, long-term change or evolution that occurs because of various learning experiences.


A. Development


B. Training


C. Education


D. Curriculum

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